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Originally Posted by BaltimoreSkins
None of which has anything to do with federal government dictating their contract due to an archaic law
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Might be archaic but it's a real law that still stands. Not unusual for two sides once they reach an impasse to bring in a Federal Mediator.
https://www.rutgers.edu/news/why-did...it-mean-unions
Why Did the Government Step in to Prevent a Rail Strike and What Does It Mean for Unions?
How did Congress and the president get involved in settling the dispute? What is their role with the unions?
Labor relations in the railroad and airline industries are governed by a specific piece of federal labor law known as the Railway Labor Act (RLA). Unlike the National Labor Relations Act, which establishes labor law for the entire private sector, or the various state laws that govern public sector labor relations, the RLA has a long process that involves cooling off periods, mediation and even government intervention before allowing a strike to occur. In September, the president got involved in negotiations and brokered a tentative agreement to avert a strike before the midterm elections. In the weeks since then, the 12 rail unions have been individually voting on whether to accept the terms of that agreement. Four unions, representing just over half of the 115,000 rail workers, have voted “no,” which re-opened the pathway for a strike if the unions and employers cannot come to a new agreement that addresseS the workers’ lingering concerns by December 9.