[CRedskinsRule]

Originally Posted by saden1

There is lots of historical background on the subject but all that's needed is The Judiciary Act of 1789 passed by the first congress:

I am sure we can bicker back and forth, but The Judiciary Act of 1789, and specifically part of clause 13 was nullified by Marshall:

Originally Posted by From my other link

However, another clause of § 13 of the Judiciary Act of 1789 was not accorded the same presumption by Chief Justice Marshall, who, interpreting it as giving the Court power to issue a writ of mandamus on an original proceeding, declared that as Congress could not restrict the original jurisdiction neither could it enlarge it and pronounced the clause void.1093

I doubt gafinfan's right that the lawsuit was invalid solely because it was brought in the wrong court, but really, unless I miss my guess, none of us are Supreme Court scholars.

Of course I realize Saden stays at a Holiday Inn Express EVERY night, so he is always chocked full of knowledge!