ESPN: Teams that are helped/hurt by the new salary cap proposal

[JoeRedskin]

Originally Posted by Giantone

I apologize if I did that to anyone ,it was not my intent.
Let me try it another way ......all of you are 1000% right ...just answer me this how much revenue do the teams generate if the players don't play...just a simple question ?

For all intents and purposes - 0. Nada. Zilch. We are all in 1000% agreement with you on this point. No players = no revenue. No one. Absolutely not a soul is disagreeing with you on this point.

Originally Posted by Giantone

Not trying to be a smart ass but why can't it be both?

<sigh> All right, one last time, but this is my last shot at it G1 - if you get it, great. If not, c'est le vie:

The Basic Equation: [Revenue Generated By Players] - [Owners' Expenses] = [Owners' Profit/Loss].

Although the players salaries are an expense, the size of that expense will be determined based on the percentage of some number under the new CBA. The question is - What number should be used to define the Players' Percentage?

(1) Should the Players' Percentage be determined based on the Revenue Generated By Players before owners deduct their Non-Player Expenses? OR

(2) Should the Players' Percentage be determined based on the Revenue Generated By Players after owners deduct their Non-Player Expenses?

Using theory (1) the final equation looks like this: [Revenue Generated By Players] - [Players' Salaries (Percentage of Revenue)] - [Owners' Non-Player Expenses] = [Owner's Profit/Loss].

Using theory (2) the final equation looks like this: [Revenue Generated By Players] - [Owners' Non-Player Expenses] = [Owners' Preliminary Profit/Loss] - [Players' Salaries (Percentage of Preliminary Profit/Loss)] = [Owner's Final Profit/Loss].


and .... Ruhskins, I am sorry for once again boring the crap out of you.